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CT Dominance vs Flageolet vs M2

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eggplantbren
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Are these all the same thing? If not, what are they all? Are they related?

CT dominance: I've only heard this here on the forum. The CT is some muscle, I believe. There's some other muscle called the TA that does something, too, and CT dominance is what happens when the TA isn't doing much but the CT is (but I don't know what either of these muscles do).

Flageolet: This is something that is described in CVT, where there is some different way of vibrating that the vocal folds can do. Apparently to reach any note above high C this will be occurring, although the singer doesn't have to do anything special to make that happen (just make sure the support and everything else is OK).

M2: I think some voice researchers use this terminology.

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CT muscles tilt the thyroid cartilage which stretches the vocal folds for higher pitch. TA muscles adduct the vocal folds which gives deeper vibration/fuller sound etc. So any super high note is gonna be really stretched, a lot of CT action, any super low note is gonna be less CT since there isn't stretching going on. You can have varying amounts of TA activation (compression) for any note

Not sure on flageolet, I've heard people say CVT's definition is incorrect

I think M2 means anything when the resonance is in the head cavities

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- The function of CT muscles is to stretch the vocal folds and thin them out

- The function of TA muscles is to stretch the vocal folds and thicken them

These two muscles are antagonists. The usual model is something like this:

- When CT and TA cancel each other out (same amount of activation) the whole tissue of the folds vibrates. This vibration mode is called M1 or "modal voice".

- When TA > CT the folds are thickened. This coordination is usually unhealthy, even in speaking and is something you want to avoid.

- When CT > TA (CT dominance) the folds are stretched. This reduces the amount of tissue that is part of the vibration. The lower portion (towards your lungs) will not be part of the vibration anymore. This is some kind of a "hybrid" vibration pattern that doesn't really have a scientific name.

- When CT is active and TA is inactive, the folds are stretched as much as possible. This makes the folds vibrate in a different pattern. Only the top-most tissue of the folds is part of the vibration. This pattern is called M2, non-modal voice, or falsetto.

The research on "flageolet" as a laryngeal pattern is a little bit lacking. The theory goes something like this that in a certain combination of air flow and amount of stretch on your folds a part of the glottis stays closed during vibration. Flageolet can only happen within the vibration mode M2, so your TA has to be inactive.

I really doubt that voices generally go into flageolot above C5 (men) and C6 (women). There is definitely scientific evidence that it is not true for women above C6.

Also I don't remember the part of the CVT book where they state it? Wasn't it the other way round, that you should not use flageolet before C5. I'm pretty sure that males can sing way higher than C5 without using flageolet.

Flageolet is often entitled as M3, so it is the continuation of M1 (modal voice) and M2 (non-modal voice), which makes sense. From classical singing there is also the term "whistle register", which is rather defined as certain (whistly/fluty) sound. Recent research has found out that the whistle register of classical sopranos, which usually lives in the C6-F6 region, is sung within M2 and the fluty tone is created by the shape of the vocal tract. So M3 (flageloet) should not be a necessity beyond the high C.

For men there is no comparable research yet. However, from my personal experience I would say that males can sing up to something like E5 in M1 (but most often they switch to M2 before that) and up to something like B5 in M2. I think male notes above the C6 may actually happen in M3, but there is no proof for that.

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CT dominance is what sun and benny said. It is the most concrete of the three terms in my opinion.

Flageolet, not sure exactly, but not very useful information for most contemporary singing.

M2, I have yet to hear an exact definition nailed down

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CT dominance is what sun and benny said. It is the most concrete of the three terms in my opinion.

Flageolet, not sure exactly, but not very useful information for most contemporary singing.

M2, I have yet to hear an exact definition nailed down

There are two common definitions of M2:

1. A vibration mode with low length of the closing phases during oscilation cycles. This can be measured using an EGG. While in M1 closing phases are usually longer than 50% of the cycles, they are shorter in M2. However, I have still to see a study that nails down an exact value where M1 ends and M2 begins. But if you do an EGG of a siren you can clearly see a significant drop in closing quotient when the registration from M1 to M2 is done, even if the siren is completely "smooth" and "connected" from an auditory impression.

2. The second definition says that M2 is present when only the edges of the folds (the outmost layer of the folds) is part of the vibration process. This can be observed using laryngoskopy.

From what I know it is mostly agreed on that definitions 1 and 2 coincide with each other.

The original assumption for oscillation mechanism M3 was that a part of the glottis always remains open during oscillation, so there is no full closure anymore. M3 was supposed to be the mode that is the basis of the whistle register. However, recent experiments have shown that this is not true and that at least in the female classical whistle register folds still vibrate over their full length with full cord closure.

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Thanks for all of your detailed answers. So CT is the muscle that does the stretching for pitch, and is being used more on high pitches no matter what. That makes sense.

Flageolet and M2 sounds a bit more murky. If I sing in neutral at a low pitch is that M1 or M2? And above some pitch it will be M2? And maybe it depends on with/without air? But curbing (for example) is always M1? Sounds like that might be the case. Neutral definitely has shorter closed quotient in general, but perhaps on high pitches it's even shorter.

I think M2 means anything when the resonance is in the head cavities

I think the "M" stands for mechanism and it refers to the structure of the individual vocal fold oscillations. IMO if I sing an overdrive A4 that is definitely M1 but it still resonates in the head just because of the pitch. So I don't think "M" has to do with resonance.

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Yes the "M"-modes have nothing to do with resonance (at least not directly). Those are vibration patterns at laryngeal level.

For me personally, Overdrive always lives within chest resonance, but resonances are individual to some extent. Overdrive notes above G4 really hit the border towards head resonance but it's still chest.

Personally, I believe that Overdrive is the only mode that lives solely within M1. Alle the other modes switch to M2 at some point. The less metal (= shorter closing quotient), the earlier the switch. Neutral will have the earliest switch, but the low notes in neutral are still within M1. The physical limit for M2 mode on the lower end is reported to be around E3.

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Just to be clear, every sound made by the voice regardless of "register" resonates above the vocal folds. There is no actual chest resonance.

I used to say this all the time. Sometimes, I think, people might have listened.

Ergo:

Motion, when necessary, in the abs.

Note in the head.

Nothing in the throat, ever, amen.

:D

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